Strength and conditioning

Strength and conditioning

1. The combination of a single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates is a

synapse.
motor unit.
motor neuron pool.
type I muscle fiber.

2. What is the fatty sheath around the axon of a nerve that provides electrical insulation, protection, nourishment, and faster signal transmission?

Soma
Axon
Myelin
Dendrite

3. Research demonstrates that a load of approximately what percentage of maximum, when lifted explosively, can recruit all the motor units?

15%
33%
65%
70%

4. The term proximal refers to a position

above a reference point.
below a reference point.
closer to a reference point.
farther from a reference point.

5. An isometric action occurs when the pulling force

is less than the resistance force, and the muscle lengthens.
equals the opposing force, and the muscle’s length increases.
equals the opposing force, and the muscle’s length remains constant.
is greater than the force applied by resistance in the opposite direction.

6. After a bout of high-intensity resistance exercise, muscle protein breakdown is increased for approximately how long?

30 minutes
60 minutes
2 hours
4 hours

7. An increase in volume of glycogen and semifluid plasma is known as

myofibrillar atrophy.
myofibrillar hypertrophy.
sarcoplasmic atrophy.
sarcoplasmic hypertrophy.

8. Which muscle fiber type has the highest shortening velocity?

Type I
Type Ix
Type IIa
Type IIx

9. The framework of the body includes how many bones?

147
206
287
306

10. Which type of ligament is located on the outside of a joint?

Medial ligament
Intrinsic ligament
Extrinsic ligament
Capsular ligament

11. After birth and throughout physical development, softer cartilage is slowly replaced by harder bone through a process called

Wolff’s Law.
resorption.
remodeling.
ossification.

12. The vertebral (spinal) column within the axial skeleton consists of five different regions made up of how many vertebrae?

12
24
28
33

13. What is the main function of blood?

To serve as a clotting agent
To maintain blood pressure
To fight bacteria, viruses, foreign cells, and organisms
To deliver oxygen and nutrients to the tissues of the body

14. Which of the following occurs during inhalation?

The external intercostal muscles expand
The internal intercostal muscles contract
The diaphragm expands and arches upward
The diaphragm contracts and arches downward

15. What is the main role of the hypothalamus gland?

To secrete melatonin
To maintain homeostasis
To maintain blood glucose balance
To regulate calcium levels in the body

16. The pressure on the walls of the arteries during the heart’s contraction is known as

pulse pressure.
systolic blood pressure.
diastolic blood pressure.
mean arterial pressure (MAP).

17. The breakdown of ATP to release its stored energy is called

hydrolysis.
gluconeogenesis.
rephosphorylation.
dephosphorylation.

18. During the first step of converting ATP to energy, which enzyme is required to break the bond between the second and third phosphates?

ATPase
Lactase
Synthase
Pyruvate

19. Glycolysis breaks down one glucose molecule into how many pyruvate molecules?

1
2
4
8

20. Highly trained athletes can access their aerobic metabolism at full capacity in

10 seconds.
20 seconds.
30 seconds.
60 seconds.

21. In the human body, and example of a third-class lever is

elbow flexion.
plantar flexion.
elbow extension.
extension and flexion of the neck.

22. What are the two types of motion for human movement?

Linear and lateral
Linear and angular
Propulsive and decelerative
Stabilization and mobilization

23. What is the physical force affecting the body’s ability to create force, accelerate, and decelerate?

Mass
Inertia
Power
Friction

24. What anatomical plane of movement divides the body into right and left segments?

Lateral plane
Frontal plane
Sagittal plane
Transverse plane

25. Which is the most mobile of the primary joints forming the shoulder girdle?

Glenohumeral (GH)
Scapulothoracic (ST)
Sternoclavicular (SC)
Acromioclavicular (AC)

26. Assessments should evaluate the following three areas: health, fitness, and

needs.
desires.
knowledge.
performance.

27. Which of the following can be an indication of a client’s overall fitness level?

Body composition
Resting heart rate
Maximal heart rate
Heart rate variability

28. Which assessment method uses the displacement of air inside a small capsule while the subject sits inside?

BOD-POD
DEXA scan
Hydrostatic weighing
Bioelectrical impedance

29. Lower crossed syndrome (LCS) involves a combination of overactive and underactive muscles, including those in the

hips.
chest.
lower legs.
upper legs.

30. Regarding variations in knee alignment, what term is synonymous with bowlegged?

Knee varus
Knee valgus
Knee eversion
Knee inversion

31. The rate at which an athlete can reach peak levels of force is his or her

maximal strength.
strength-endurance.
rate of force deployment.
rate of force development.

32. Speed strength is similar to explosive strength, with the difference being the

load that is used.
rate of force decline.
method used for assessment.
relative strength of the individual.

33. It is recommended to test the vertical jump or standing long jump every

2 weeks.
4-6 weeks.
8-10 weeks.
12 weeks.

34. The overhead toss measures explosive strength of the

shoulders only.
calves, thighs, and hips.
posterior chain and shoulders.
abdominals, chest, and triceps.

35. The measure of how strong an athlete is in relation to his or her body weight is

relative strength.
reactive strength.
maximal strength.
strength-endurance.

36. Active movements performed as a warm-up to bring joints and their associated soft tissue through a full, active, and pain-free ROM while increasing temperature and blood flow are known as

static stretches.
ballistic stretches.
dynamic stretches.
proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF).

37. During proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) stretching, muscle spindle activation causes Golgi tendon organs to inhibit muscular contraction through

autogenic inhibition.
isotonic contractions.
isometric contractions.
pre-contraction stretching.

38. Which of the following is true regarding self-myofascial release (SMR)?

SMR should only be used following activity.
SMR improves the tissue’s ability to lengthen during dynamic movement.
The optimal length of time to hold the SMR tool on the area of focus is 10-15 seconds.
Research suggests SMR has a significant effect on muscle functioning after application.

39. When performing contract relax (CR) stretching, how many times can the sequences be repeated?

No more than two times
No more than three times
Up to four times
Up to five times

40. The speed of muscular exertion is limited by

gender only.
height to weight ratio.
muscle length-tension relation only.
neuromuscular efficiency and coordination.

41. Where are Golgi tendon organs located?

Within joint capsules
In the musculotendinous junction
Within intrafusal (skeletal) muscle fibers near the musculotendinous junction
Within extrafusal (skeletal) muscle fibers near the musculotendinous junction

42. What is the function of the Golgi tendon organ?

To detect changes in the length of muscle fiber
To minimize potential stored energy in the muscle tissue
To maximize potential stored energy in the muscle tissue
To prevent excessive muscle stretch or tension through inhibitory mechanisms

43. What is the first stage of plyometric movement?

Eccentric phase
Concentric phase
Preparation phase
Amortization phase

44. The height of the box used for box jumps will vary based on the athlete, but the typical starting point is

6 inches.
12 inches.
18 inches.
24 inches.

45. What does the acronym FITT stand for?

Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type
Factual, Interesting, Tactile, Tangible
Friendly, Inclusive, Teachable, Testable
Feasibility, Interpretability, Trainability, Transferability

46. Reverse pyramid training has the lifter begin with the heaviest weight they can move for

one repetition.
two to four repetitions.
five to six repetitions.
eight to ten repetitions.

47. Tempo is the rhythm with which the load is moved during a repetition, and affects which metric?

Intensity
Recovery
Training frequency
Time under tension

48. Systematically stepping back training to lighten the load, duration, volume, or intensity of work to promote physical and psychological recovery, is known as

tapering.
regression.
downgrading.
supercompensation.

49. Which of the following is a chronic sign of overtraining?

Increased resting blood pressure
Reduced immune system function
Increased resting heart rate (by 5 to 10 bpm)
Slower heart rate recovery within a training session

50. The relatively superficial muscles connecting the trunk and extremities from the pelvis to the spine are known as the

local stabilizers.
global stabilizers.
internal stabilizers.
external stabilizers.

51. Which movement/maneuver uses the diaphragm and the pelvic floor muscles as a guide to gently activate the entire LPHC simultaneously?

Pelvic bracing
Valsalva maneuver
Abdominal bracing
Abdominal hollowing

52. In which step of core progression are foundational strength and endurance built?

Stabilization
Dynamic stability
Dynamic mobility
Muscle recruitment

53. When performing the lying leg raise exercise, the athlete should keep

the legs extended while elevating them to between 30 and 45 degrees.
the legs extended while elevating them to between 60 and 90 degrees.
a soft bend in the knees while elevating the legs to between 30 and 45 degrees.
a soft bend in the knees while elevating the legs to between 60 and 90 degrees.

54. The major dysfunctions a coach can observe with the pectoral musculature involve

joint laxity.
overactivity.
underactivity.
increased subacromial space.

55. The muscles of the shoulder include the

acromion.
subclavius.
teres minor.
serratus anterior.

56. What is the primary factor when loading upper body exercises?

Posture
The type of grip
The force vector
The position of the scapulae

57. Which of the following correctly describes the overhand grip?

Palms facing up
Palms facing down
Palms facing midline of the body
One palm facing up and one palm facing down

58. What push-up variation allows for more elbow flexion for those with limited mobility of the wrist?

Elevating the feet
Push-up from dumbbells
Widening the hand placement
Narrowing the hand placement

59. The musculature of the lower body can be divided into three groups: muscles controlling the knee, muscles controlling the ankle and foot, and muscles controlling the

hips.
lumbar spine.
thoracic spine.
sacroiliac joint.

60. The major dysfunctions a coach can observe at the foot and ankle include

metatarsalgia.
ankle eversion.
ankle protraction.
tibial tendon dysfunction.

61. To effectively activate the glutes and posterior chain during lower-body exercises, the feet must be

rotated slightly inward.
rotated slightly outward.
set and grounded at midfoot.
set and grounded with the weight toward the heels.

62. Preparation for a lower-body exercise starts

in the pelvis.
in the gluteals.
from the floor up.
by engaging the abdominals.

63. Power training, sometimes referred to as ballistic training, incorporates exercises producing maximum

gains in muscle mass.
force, irrespective of time.
gains in strength endurance.
force in the shortest duration of time.

64. The process of an individual muscle firing to create force is known as

internal coordination.
external coordination.
intramuscular coordination.
intermuscular coordination.

65. What is one of the simplest checks for overall mobility, and is commonly used by USA weightlifting for athlete preparation, and to test readiness for the snatch specifically?

Apley’s test
Toe touch test
Overhead squat
Sit and reach flexibility test

66. While performing a reverse overhead medicine ball throw, how long shall the athlete pause in the semi-squat position before powerfully standing and executing the throw?

One second
Two seconds
Three seconds
Five seconds

67. Regarding the scope of practice for nutritional coaching, which of the following statements is correct?

Laws and ordinances do not differ from state to state.
OSHA outlines nutritional coaching restrictions by state.
Nutritional coaching is outside the scope of practice for strength and conditioning professionals.
Practice location changes the level and type of nutrition recommendations a trainer can offer clients.

68. Proteins containing enough essential amino acids to maintain the body’s normal growth rate and body weight are called

required proteins.
essential proteins.
complete proteins.
functional proteins.

69. Which of the following, via intake, offers the most direct control over blood sugar levels and energy availability on a high-demand basis?

Fat
Insulin
Protein
Carbohydrate

70. What is the conduit via which the neurological system operates?

Water
Glucose
Fat-soluble vitamins
Macronutrient balance

71. How many liters of water are estimated to be lost per day, through defecation, respiration, perspiration, and urination?

Less than 1
Roughly 2.5
At least 4
Approximately 5

72. The breakdown of glucose to form energy is called

ketosis.
glycemia.
glycolysis.
gluconeogenesis.

73. The two types of endurance training are continuous training and

interval training.
long-slow-distance (LSD) training.
high-intensity long-duration (HLD) training.
energy systems development (ESD) training.

74. Which of the muscle fiber types have the lowest amount of capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin, and are responsible for the most powerful athletic movements?

Type I
Type Ia
Type IIa
Type IIx

75. Which of the following is true regarding methods of measuring aerobic development?

Cyclic athletes should not be assessed for endurance development using cyclic activities.
It is difficult for acyclic athletes to maintain their heart rate within the narrow MAHR range.
An option for assessing endurance development in acyclic athletes is testing with a cyclic activity.
It is relatively simple for acyclic athletes to maintain their heart rate within the narrow MAHR range.

76. The immediate fatigue that occurs during a single maximal repetition, set of repetitions, or a single training session is called

neural fatigue.
metabolic fatigue.
peripheral fatigue.
sympathetic fatigue.

77. A model demonstrating the body’s response to stress, which suggests performance increases are based on the aftereffects of both fitness and fatigue, is the

Fatigue Profile Model.
Fitness-Fatigue Model.
Physiology of Stress Model.
Model of Supercompensation.

78. Therapy that combines the beneficial effects of both heat and cold is called

contrast therapy.
reflexive therapy.
shell-core therapy.
alternating therapy.

79. What percentage of the protein found in milk does whey account for?

10%
20%
40%
80%

80. When choosing a protein, athletes should look for a source that is

denatured.
undenatured.
hot processed.
plant-based only.

81. Which supplement is commonly used as an alternative energy source for those who follow a carbohydrate-restricted nutritional strategy?

Pea protein
Rice protein
Long-chain triglyceride (LCT) oil
Medium-chain triglyceride (MCT) oil

82. Choline is commonly found in

egg yolks.
cider vinegar.
bamboo shoots.
imitation sour cream.

83. What compounds and metabolites contained in tart cherry juice extract can reduce an unwanted inflammatory response?

Cordyceps and dipeptides
Flavonoids and anthocyanins
Magnesium sulfate and magnesium oxide
Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)

84. The professional body overseeing the development and certification for performance psychology professionals is the

Association for Psychological Science (APS).
Association for Applied Sport Psychology (AASP).
Society for Occupational Health Psychology (SOHP).
Society for Industrial and Organizational Psychology (SIOP).

85. Motivation factors such as a coach’s pep-talk or performance outcomes are examples of

fear motivation.
internal motivation.
external motivation.
acceptance motivation.

86. What is perhaps the easiest psychological strategy to use in training?

Cues
Change bias
Cognitive dissonance
Positive reinforcement

87. Which of the following is true regarding diaphragmatic breathing?

It involves short, quick breathing
It is only used after a performance
It involves rhythmic, deep, slow breathing
It is used to “amp up” prior to performance

88. What are the three fundamental aspects of an ideal training progression?

Volume, intensity, and load
Endurance, strength, and power
Movement competency, strength, and power
Functional capacity, cardiorespiratory fitness, and injury resiliency

89. A well-designed warm-up can provide four physiological benefits, including

an increased VO2 max.
improved heart rate recovery times.
a greater volume of oxygen delivery to working muscles.
decreasing the blood volume flowing through active tissues.

90. For athletic development, it is recommended to train a major muscle group or movement pattern a minimum of

once per week.
twice per week.
twice monthly.
three times monthly.

91. The guideline for programming hypertrophy is

3 to 5 sets of 1 to 5 repetitions.
3 to 4 sets of 6 to 12 repetitions.
6 to 12 sets of 3 to 4 repetitions.
1 to 3 sets of 13 or more repetitions.

92. Which of the following actions is generally within the scope of practice for a strength and conditioning coach?

Taping an athlete’s sprained ankle
Performing manual stretching of an athlete’s hamstrings
Providing verbal cues and feedback during resistance training exercises
Designing and prescribing an individualized nutrition program for an athlete

93. Of all the steps taken to prepare for a strength and conditioning job interview, which is arguably the most challenging?

Anticipating and preparing for skepticism
Highlighting what can be done for the team
Showing an understanding of what the team needs
Selling one’s strengths by highlighting different and unique qualities

94. Regarding a new coach interviewing for a strength and conditioning job, which of the following is a recommended practice?

Avoid highlighting personal experience as an athlete in a particular sport.
Making it evident he or she is an expert in the field of strength and conditioning
Avoiding conversations about the specific needs of various player positions.
Highlight and explain any volunteered time spent to better understand player needs.

95. Regarding the interview process for a strength and conditioning job, once a coach has determined to the best of their ability what the team needs, a coach should

make it evident he or she is an expert.
minimize transparency until hired.
highlight how they can help the team.
point out areas where the previous coach failed.

96. During an interview, the interviewer may ask some challenging questions about self-perceived weaknesses, and it is for this reason a coach should

avoid revealing any known or perceived shortfalls.
take the opportunity to make it evident he or she is an expert in the field.
present solutions demonstrating a capacity to overcome any shortfalls.
not attempt to present solutions to overcome any known or perceived shortfalls.

97. Which periodization model alternates upper- and lower-body workouts throughout the week?

Linear periodization
Conjugate periodization
Non-linear periodization
Undulating periodization

98. What is the goal of the sport-specific preparation phase (SSP)?

To develop basic components of fitness
To develop skill level in sport-specific movements
To develop strength in movements that enhance sport performance
To develop explosive strength and power in sport-specific movements

99. During which phase is a relatively high volume of work programmed to build general fitness?

Escalating density training (EDT)
Sport-specific preparation (SSP)
General preparation phase (GPP)
Specific physical preparation (SPP)

100. To maintain muscle mass, in-season training should rotate between

maximal strength and power training.
hypertrophy and speed-strength training.
speed-strength and strength-speed training.
maximal strength and hypertrophy training.