Category: Questions

1. The combination of a single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates is a

synapse.
motor unit.
motor neuron pool.
type I muscle fiber.

2. What is the fatty sheath around the axon of a nerve that provides electrical insulation, protection, nourishment, and faster signal transmission?

Soma
Axon
Myelin
Dendrite

3. Research demonstrates that a load of approximately what percentage of maximum, when lifted explosively, can recruit all the motor units?

15%
33%
65%
70%

4. The term proximal refers to a position

above a reference point.
below a reference point.
closer to a reference point.
farther from a reference point.

5. An isometric action occurs when the pulling force

is less than the resistance force, and the muscle lengthens.
equals the opposing force, and the muscle’s length increases.
equals the opposing force, and the muscle’s length remains constant.
is greater than the force applied by resistance in the opposite direction.

6. After a bout of high-intensity resistance exercise, muscle protein breakdown is increased for approximately how long?

30 minutes
60 minutes
2 hours
4 hours

7. An increase in volume of glycogen and semifluid plasma is known as

myofibrillar atrophy.
myofibrillar hypertrophy.
sarcoplasmic atrophy.
sarcoplasmic hypertrophy.

8. Which muscle fiber type has the highest shortening velocity?

Type I
Type Ix
Type IIa
Type IIx

9. The framework of the body includes how many bones?

147
206
287
306

10. Which type of ligament is located on the outside of a joint?

Medial ligament
Intrinsic ligament
Extrinsic ligament
Capsular ligament

11. After birth and throughout physical development, softer cartilage is slowly replaced by harder bone through a process called

Wolff’s Law.
resorption.
remodeling.
ossification.

12. The vertebral (spinal) column within the axial skeleton consists of five different regions made up of how many vertebrae?

12
24
28
33

13. What is the main function of blood?

To serve as a clotting agent
To maintain blood pressure
To fight bacteria, viruses, foreign cells, and organisms
To deliver oxygen and nutrients to the tissues of the body

14. Which of the following occurs during inhalation?

The external intercostal muscles expand
The internal intercostal muscles contract
The diaphragm expands and arches upward
The diaphragm contracts and arches downward

15. What is the main role of the hypothalamus gland?

To secrete melatonin
To maintain homeostasis
To maintain blood glucose balance
To regulate calcium levels in the body

16. The pressure on the walls of the arteries during the heart’s contraction is known as

pulse pressure.
systolic blood pressure.
diastolic blood pressure.
mean arterial pressure (MAP).

17. The breakdown of ATP to release its stored energy is called

hydrolysis.
gluconeogenesis.
rephosphorylation.
dephosphorylation.

18. During the first step of converting ATP to energy, which enzyme is required to break the bond between the second and third phosphates?

ATPase
Lactase
Synthase
Pyruvate

19. Glycolysis breaks down one glucose molecule into how many pyruvate molecules?

1
2
4
8

20. Highly trained athletes can access their aerobic metabolism at full capacity in

10 seconds.
20 seconds.
30 seconds.
60 seconds.

21. In the human body, and example of a third-class lever is

elbow flexion.
plantar flexion.
elbow extension.
extension and flexion of the neck.

22. What are the two types of motion for human movement?

Linear and lateral
Linear and angular
Propulsive and decelerative
Stabilization and mobilization

23. What is the physical force affecting the body’s ability to create force, accelerate, and decelerate?

Mass
Inertia
Power
Friction

24. What anatomical plane of movement divides the body into right and left segments?

Lateral plane
Frontal plane
Sagittal plane
Transverse plane

25. Which is the most mobile of the primary joints forming the shoulder girdle?

Glenohumeral (GH)
Scapulothoracic (ST)
Sternoclavicular (SC)
Acromioclavicular (AC)

26. Assessments should evaluate the following three areas: health, fitness, and

needs.
desires.
knowledge.
performance.

27. Which of the following can be an indication of a client’s overall fitness level?

Body composition
Resting heart rate
Maximal heart rate
Heart rate variability

28. Which assessment method uses the displacement of air inside a small capsule while the subject sits inside?

BOD-POD
DEXA scan
Hydrostatic weighing
Bioelectrical impedance

29. Lower crossed syndrome (LCS) involves a combination of overactive and underactive muscles, including those in the

hips.
chest.
lower legs.
upper legs.

30. Regarding variations in knee alignment, what term is synonymous with bowlegged?

Knee varus
Knee valgus
Knee eversion
Knee inversion

31. The rate at which an athlete can reach peak levels of force is his or her

maximal strength.
strength-endurance.
rate of force deployment.
rate of force development.

32. Speed strength is similar to explosive strength, with the difference being the

load that is used.
rate of force decline.
method used for assessment.
relative strength of the individual.

33. It is recommended to test the vertical jump or standing long jump every

2 weeks.
4-6 weeks.
8-10 weeks.
12 weeks.

34. The overhead toss measures explosive strength of the

shoulders only.
calves, thighs, and hips.
posterior chain and shoulders.
abdominals, chest, and triceps.

35. The measure of how strong an athlete is in relation to his or her body weight is

relative strength.
reactive strength.
maximal strength.
strength-endurance.

36. Active movements performed as a warm-up to bring joints and their associated soft tissue through a full, active, and pain-free ROM while increasing temperature and blood flow are known as

static stretches.
ballistic stretches.
dynamic stretches.
proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF).

37. During proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) stretching, muscle spindle activation causes Golgi tendon organs to inhibit muscular contraction through

autogenic inhibition.
isotonic contractions.
isometric contractions.
pre-contraction stretching.

38. Which of the following is true regarding self-myofascial release (SMR)?

SMR should only be used following activity.
SMR improves the tissue’s ability to lengthen during dynamic movement.
The optimal length of time to hold the SMR tool on the area of focus is 10-15 seconds.
Research suggests SMR has a significant effect on muscle functioning after application.

39. When performing contract relax (CR) stretching, how many times can the sequences be repeated?

No more than two times
No more than three times
Up to four times
Up to five times

40. The speed of muscular exertion is limited by

gender only.
height to weight ratio.
muscle length-tension relation only.
neuromuscular efficiency and coordination.

41. Where are Golgi tendon organs located?

Within joint capsules
In the musculotendinous junction
Within intrafusal (skeletal) muscle fibers near the musculotendinous junction
Within extrafusal (skeletal) muscle fibers near the musculotendinous junction

42. What is the function of the Golgi tendon organ?

To detect changes in the length of muscle fiber
To minimize potential stored energy in the muscle tissue
To maximize potential stored energy in the muscle tissue
To prevent excessive muscle stretch or tension through inhibitory mechanisms

43. What is the first stage of plyometric movement?

Eccentric phase
Concentric phase
Preparation phase
Amortization phase

44. The height of the box used for box jumps will vary based on the athlete, but the typical starting point is

6 inches.
12 inches.
18 inches.
24 inches.

45. What does the acronym FITT stand for?

Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type
Factual, Interesting, Tactile, Tangible
Friendly, Inclusive, Teachable, Testable
Feasibility, Interpretability, Trainability, Transferability

46. Reverse pyramid training has the lifter begin with the heaviest weight they can move for

one repetition.
two to four repetitions.
five to six repetitions.
eight to ten repetitions.

47. Tempo is the rhythm with which the load is moved during a repetition, and affects which metric?

Intensity
Recovery
Training frequency
Time under tension

48. Systematically stepping back training to lighten the load, duration, volume, or intensity of work to promote physical and psychological recovery, is known as

tapering.
regression.
downgrading.
supercompensation.

49. Which of the following is a chronic sign of overtraining?

Increased resting blood pressure
Reduced immune system function
Increased resting heart rate (by 5 to 10 bpm)
Slower heart rate recovery within a training session

50. The relatively superficial muscles connecting the trunk and extremities from the pelvis to the spine are known as the

local stabilizers.
global stabilizers.
internal stabilizers.
external stabilizers.

51. Which movement/maneuver uses the diaphragm and the pelvic floor muscles as a guide to gently activate the entire LPHC simultaneously?

Pelvic bracing
Valsalva maneuver
Abdominal bracing
Abdominal hollowing

52. In which step of core progression are foundational strength and endurance built?

Stabilization
Dynamic stability
Dynamic mobility
Muscle recruitment

53. When performing the lying leg raise exercise, the athlete should keep

the legs extended while elevating them to between 30 and 45 degrees.
the legs extended while elevating them to between 60 and 90 degrees.
a soft bend in the knees while elevating the legs to between 30 and 45 degrees.
a soft bend in the knees while elevating the legs to between 60 and 90 degrees.

54. The major dysfunctions a coach can observe with the pectoral musculature involve

joint laxity.
overactivity.
underactivity.
increased subacromial space.

55. The muscles of the shoulder include the

acromion.
subclavius.
teres minor.
serratus anterior.

56. What is the primary factor when loading upper body exercises?

Posture
The type of grip
The force vector
The position of the scapulae

57. Which of the following correctly describes the overhand grip?

Palms facing up
Palms facing down
Palms facing midline of the body
One palm facing up and one palm facing down

58. What push-up variation allows for more elbow flexion for those with limited mobility of the wrist?

Elevating the feet
Push-up from dumbbells
Widening the hand placement
Narrowing the hand placement

59. The musculature of the lower body can be divided into three groups: muscles controlling the knee, muscles controlling the ankle and foot, and muscles controlling the

hips.
lumbar spine.
thoracic spine.
sacroiliac joint.

60. The major dysfunctions a coach can observe at the foot and ankle include

metatarsalgia.
ankle eversion.
ankle protraction.
tibial tendon dysfunction.

61. To effectively activate the glutes and posterior chain during lower-body exercises, the feet must be

rotated slightly inward.
rotated slightly outward.
set and grounded at midfoot.
set and grounded with the weight toward the heels.

62. Preparation for a lower-body exercise starts

in the pelvis.
in the gluteals.
from the floor up.
by engaging the abdominals.

63. Power training, sometimes referred to as ballistic training, incorporates exercises producing maximum

gains in muscle mass.
force, irrespective of time.
gains in strength endurance.
force in the shortest duration of time.

64. The process of an individual muscle firing to create force is known as

internal coordination.
external coordination.
intramuscular coordination.
intermuscular coordination.

65. What is one of the simplest checks for overall mobility, and is commonly used by USA weightlifting for athlete preparation, and to test readiness for the snatch specifically?

Apley’s test
Toe touch test
Overhead squat
Sit and reach flexibility test

66. While performing a reverse overhead medicine ball throw, how long shall the athlete pause in the semi-squat position before powerfully standing and executing the throw?

One second
Two seconds
Three seconds
Five seconds

67. Regarding the scope of practice for nutritional coaching, which of the following statements is correct?

Laws and ordinances do not differ from state to state.
OSHA outlines nutritional coaching restrictions by state.
Nutritional coaching is outside the scope of practice for strength and conditioning professionals.
Practice location changes the level and type of nutrition recommendations a trainer can offer clients.

68. Proteins containing enough essential amino acids to maintain the body’s normal growth rate and body weight are called

required proteins.
essential proteins.
complete proteins.
functional proteins.

69. Which of the following, via intake, offers the most direct control over blood sugar levels and energy availability on a high-demand basis?

Fat
Insulin
Protein
Carbohydrate

70. What is the conduit via which the neurological system operates?

Water
Glucose
Fat-soluble vitamins
Macronutrient balance

71. How many liters of water are estimated to be lost per day, through defecation, respiration, perspiration, and urination?

Less than 1
Roughly 2.5
At least 4
Approximately 5

72. The breakdown of glucose to form energy is called

ketosis.
glycemia.
glycolysis.
gluconeogenesis.

73. The two types of endurance training are continuous training and

interval training.
long-slow-distance (LSD) training.
high-intensity long-duration (HLD) training.
energy systems development (ESD) training.

74. Which of the muscle fiber types have the lowest amount of capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin, and are responsible for the most powerful athletic movements?

Type I
Type Ia
Type IIa
Type IIx

75. Which of the following is true regarding methods of measuring aerobic development?

Cyclic athletes should not be assessed for endurance development using cyclic activities.
It is difficult for acyclic athletes to maintain their heart rate within the narrow MAHR range.
An option for assessing endurance development in acyclic athletes is testing with a cyclic activity.
It is relatively simple for acyclic athletes to maintain their heart rate within the narrow MAHR range.

76. The immediate fatigue that occurs during a single maximal repetition, set of repetitions, or a single training session is called

neural fatigue.
metabolic fatigue.
peripheral fatigue.
sympathetic fatigue.

77. A model demonstrating the body’s response to stress, which suggests performance increases are based on the aftereffects of both fitness and fatigue, is the

Fatigue Profile Model.
Fitness-Fatigue Model.
Physiology of Stress Model.
Model of Supercompensation.

78. Therapy that combines the beneficial effects of both heat and cold is called

contrast therapy.
reflexive therapy.
shell-core therapy.
alternating therapy.

79. What percentage of the protein found in milk does whey account for?

10%
20%
40%
80%

80. When choosing a protein, athletes should look for a source that is

denatured.
undenatured.
hot processed.
plant-based only.

81. Which supplement is commonly used as an alternative energy source for those who follow a carbohydrate-restricted nutritional strategy?

Pea protein
Rice protein
Long-chain triglyceride (LCT) oil
Medium-chain triglyceride (MCT) oil

82. Choline is commonly found in

egg yolks.
cider vinegar.
bamboo shoots.
imitation sour cream.

83. What compounds and metabolites contained in tart cherry juice extract can reduce an unwanted inflammatory response?

Cordyceps and dipeptides
Flavonoids and anthocyanins
Magnesium sulfate and magnesium oxide
Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)

84. The professional body overseeing the development and certification for performance psychology professionals is the

Association for Psychological Science (APS).
Association for Applied Sport Psychology (AASP).
Society for Occupational Health Psychology (SOHP).
Society for Industrial and Organizational Psychology (SIOP).

85. Motivation factors such as a coach’s pep-talk or performance outcomes are examples of

fear motivation.
internal motivation.
external motivation.
acceptance motivation.

86. What is perhaps the easiest psychological strategy to use in training?

Cues
Change bias
Cognitive dissonance
Positive reinforcement

87. Which of the following is true regarding diaphragmatic breathing?

It involves short, quick breathing
It is only used after a performance
It involves rhythmic, deep, slow breathing
It is used to “amp up” prior to performance

88. What are the three fundamental aspects of an ideal training progression?

Volume, intensity, and load
Endurance, strength, and power
Movement competency, strength, and power
Functional capacity, cardiorespiratory fitness, and injury resiliency

89. A well-designed warm-up can provide four physiological benefits, including

an increased VO2 max.
improved heart rate recovery times.
a greater volume of oxygen delivery to working muscles.
decreasing the blood volume flowing through active tissues.

90. For athletic development, it is recommended to train a major muscle group or movement pattern a minimum of

once per week.
twice per week.
twice monthly.
three times monthly.

91. The guideline for programming hypertrophy is

3 to 5 sets of 1 to 5 repetitions.
3 to 4 sets of 6 to 12 repetitions.
6 to 12 sets of 3 to 4 repetitions.
1 to 3 sets of 13 or more repetitions.

92. Which of the following actions is generally within the scope of practice for a strength and conditioning coach?

Taping an athlete’s sprained ankle
Performing manual stretching of an athlete’s hamstrings
Providing verbal cues and feedback during resistance training exercises
Designing and prescribing an individualized nutrition program for an athlete

93. Of all the steps taken to prepare for a strength and conditioning job interview, which is arguably the most challenging?

Anticipating and preparing for skepticism
Highlighting what can be done for the team
Showing an understanding of what the team needs
Selling one’s strengths by highlighting different and unique qualities

94. Regarding a new coach interviewing for a strength and conditioning job, which of the following is a recommended practice?

Avoid highlighting personal experience as an athlete in a particular sport.
Making it evident he or she is an expert in the field of strength and conditioning
Avoiding conversations about the specific needs of various player positions.
Highlight and explain any volunteered time spent to better understand player needs.

95. Regarding the interview process for a strength and conditioning job, once a coach has determined to the best of their ability what the team needs, a coach should

make it evident he or she is an expert.
minimize transparency until hired.
highlight how they can help the team.
point out areas where the previous coach failed.

96. During an interview, the interviewer may ask some challenging questions about self-perceived weaknesses, and it is for this reason a coach should

avoid revealing any known or perceived shortfalls.
take the opportunity to make it evident he or she is an expert in the field.
present solutions demonstrating a capacity to overcome any shortfalls.
not attempt to present solutions to overcome any known or perceived shortfalls.

97. Which periodization model alternates upper- and lower-body workouts throughout the week?

Linear periodization
Conjugate periodization
Non-linear periodization
Undulating periodization

98. What is the goal of the sport-specific preparation phase (SSP)?

To develop basic components of fitness
To develop skill level in sport-specific movements
To develop strength in movements that enhance sport performance
To develop explosive strength and power in sport-specific movements

99. During which phase is a relatively high volume of work programmed to build general fitness?

Escalating density training (EDT)
Sport-specific preparation (SSP)
General preparation phase (GPP)
Specific physical preparation (SPP)

100. To maintain muscle mass, in-season training should rotate between

maximal strength and power training.
hypertrophy and speed-strength training.
speed-strength and strength-speed training.
maximal strength and hypertrophy training.

Self-Assessment of Program Learning Outcomes 

Introduction: This evaluation tool consists of tables that contain the program learning outcomes for the completion of the BSN degree.  Under each program outcome, the student learning outcomes (SLO) aligned for this course will be displayed.  Students will also see the concepts, topics, or lesson objectives that were used in this course to help meet these expected outcomes.  This evaluation tool is designed to make it possible to see a student’s development as they progress through the nursing curriculum.  It will help provide standard measures for student, course, and program evaluation.

Instructions: Students complete this form with evidence from their learning of how the intended outcomes have been met.  Complete each table with an emphasis on the overall program outcomes in the top blue box in each section.    

Students complete the Student Reflection Box.

Program Completion: In the final semester of the program, students will compile the reflections from each individual course into one document.  Instructions and submission information will be provided in NURS 4092 for the culminating document.  Please retain copies of each reflection for this purpose.

Chart Key, for example/ directions:

Program Outcome for BSN Program

SLO- Student Learning Outcome for NURS xxxx that is intended to help you meet the program outcome above.

Topic(s), concepts, or lesson objectives within the course that fell under the identified SLO as a guide.  You are not limited to these criteria. Please feel free to expand on your knowledge in your comments.

Student Reflections: Provide your thoughts here.  This can be done in a narrative format or in bulleted sentences.  Either way there should be enough detail in this section to clearly show how you are progressing toward meeting the overall program outcome in question.

Self-Assessment: Program Outcome, Course Outcomes, Course concepts ­

Program Outcome:Contribute leadership to promote quality care and patient safety.
SLO- Identify safety processes for patients with acute health problems across healthcare settings.
Describing the potential complications of patient therapies and strategies to prevent these complicationsExplaining the procedure for safely administering blood products	Describing the special precautions required to administer parenteral nutrition safelyDiscussing the management of seizuresCompletion of weekly Advantage modules
Student Reflections:

Program Outcome:Integrate evolving knowledge into clinical nursing practice.
SLO- Apply evidence-based practice to plan, implement, and evaluate patient-centered nursing management of patients with acute health problems.
Completing comprehensive case studies and plans of care for acute health problemsCompleting weekly Advantage modules	Formulation of nursing interventions and desired patient outcomes related to acute health problemsCompleting COVID-19 critical thinking exercise.
Student Reflections:

Program Outcome:Demonstrate skill in utilizing healthcare technology and information systems.
SLO- Discuss the use of technology in monitoring and delivering care to patients with acute health problems across health care settings.
Explaining nursing considerations for diagnostic studies, patient monitoring, and medication administration	Completion of online learning modulesExamining pain management strategies, including PCA
Student Reflections:

Program Outcome:Collaborates with inter-professional teams to improve healthcare outcomes.
SLO- Define nursing roles within inter-professional health care teams involved in the care of patients with acute health problems.
Completion of weekly case studies	Discussing interprofessional management of acute medical-surgical problems
Student Reflections:

Program Outcome: Provide health protection and promotion, risk reduction, and disease prevention to individuals, families, and populations.
SLO- Determine appropriate evidence-based patient education strategies for health promotion and illness prevention in adult patient populations.
Incorporating both individualized, evidence-based interventions into a plan of care	Developing patient education strategies to promote self-care and improved patient outcomesDiscussion age-appropriate teaching strategies
Student Reflections:

Program Outcome: Demonstrate behaviors that reflect altruism, autonomy, human dignity, integrity, and social justice.
SLO- Exhibits accountability for personal and professional growth and adheres to professional standards expected of a student nurse.
Completion of case studies that pose nursing ethical dilemmas	Completion of weekly group case studies to encourage professionalism, cooperation, and conflict resolution.
Student Reflections:

Program Outcome:Adapt nursing care to meet the needs of patients across the lifespan and healthcare continuum, respecting variations in populations, environments, and access to care.
SLO- Recognize cultural, socioeconomic, and demographic factors contributing to acute illness in adult populations.
Incorporating age, cultural, and socioeconomic factors in case studies and care planning for adults with acute illness	Identifying care considerations for the older adult population
Student Reflections:

Final Thoughts (Optional):

Student Reflections:                                                                                                        Recommendations for further development/improvement of course(s) to better meet the course and/or program outcomes.

Self-Assessment of Program Learning Outcomes
Pediatric

Introduction: This evaluation tool consists of tables that contain the program learning outcomes for the completion of the BSN degree. Under each program outcome you will see the student learning outcomes (SLO) for this course that are intended to help you meet the program outcomes for your degree. You will also see the concepts, topics, or lesson objectives that were used in this course to help you meet these expected outcomes. This evaluation tool is designed to make it possible to see a student’s development as she/he progresses through the nursing curriculum. It will help provide standard measures for student, course, and program evaluation.
Instructions: Complete this form with evidence from your learning of how you feel that you have met the intended outcomes in each table with an emphasis on the overall program outcomes in the top blue box in each section.
Students complete the Student Reflection Box.
Chart Key for example/ directions:
Program Outcome for BSN Program
SLO- Student Learning Outcome for NURS 4124 that is intended to help you meet the program outcome above.
• Topic(s), concepts, or lesson objectives within the course that fell under the identified SLO as a guide. You are not limited to these criteria. Please feel free to expand on your knowledge in your comments.
Student Reflections:
Provide your thoughts here. This can be done in a narrative format or in bulleted sentences. Either way there should be enough detail in this section to clearly show how you are progressing toward meeting the overall program outcome in question.

Self-Assessment: Program Outcome, Course Outcomes, Course concepts ¬

2. Integrate evolving knowledge into clinical nursing practice.
   SLO- Explain historical perspectives and current trends in health care for children and families.
   SLO- Examine theory, research-based knowledge and standards of practice to provide holistic nursing care to children and families.
   SLO- Learn the independent and collaborative roles of the professional nurse in the delivery of care to children and families.
   • Describe trauma informed care as it relates to distress and pain when caring for children
   • Explain examples of emotional support and how that is applied in care of children through the lifespan
   • Describe family support and education as it applies to holistic care of children and families • Describe resources for the professional nurse and for families to learn current evidence related to child growth, developmental milestones etc. (eg – describe resources through the CDC, AAP, etc)
   **Please note that ‘evolving knowledge’ is related to nursing research and discovery of new knowledge. Ultimate question is how do you integrate this evidence into your clinical nursing practice?

Student Reflections:

3. Demonstrate skill in utilizing healthcare technology and information systems.
   SLO- Examine the use of various technologies to assess, monitor, and support children and families in health and illness
   • Analyze the differences in skill equipment sizes and skill procedures for children of various ages, heights, and weights
   • Apply safe techniques in use of equipment and math calculations for IV and med therapy • Analyze how the Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) competencies relate to direct care of children across clinical settings
   ***Note here types of technology used to assess childhood growth and development and in clinical care of children in acute care settings. What technological advances have you learned about to help in your practice caring for children?
   Student Reflections:
4. Provide health protection and promotion, risk reduction, and disease prevention to individuals, families, and populations.
   SLO- Analyze research-based knowledge to meet the health promotion needs of children and families.
   • Explain examinations and screening procedures recommended to keep children healthy.
   • Provide parent teaching for homecare including safety features of care equipment (including car seats), problem solving techniques for child behavior and sleep, normal growth and development of children, symptoms of illness in the child and the importance of well-child checkups and immunizations. • Discuss theory of epigenetics and how it relates to child development
   • Explain how nurses can help protect the child in clinic and inpatient settings through identification, infection prevention and fall prevention.
   • Describe the immunization web based training module and how immunization affects health of children and the population.
   ** What types of health promotion methods have you learned of and demonstrated in this course? How can those things impact the health outcomes for children and their families?
   Student Reflections:
5. Demonstrate behaviors that reflect altruism, autonomy, human dignity, integrity, and social justice.
   SLO- Examine cultural influences that affect the health status and health practices of children and families.
   SLO- Discuss legal and ethical issues that affect the nursing care of children and families.
   • Describe bullying as a public health crisis and best practices for bullying prevention and response.
   • Analyze how disparities in healthcare outcomes relate to a family’s culture, ethnicity or race, and sociopolitical or spiritual/religious beliefs. • Discuss cultural influences in caring for children and families – consider chapter 4 case study related to cultural care.
   • Explain how informed consent relates to children and adolescents.

Student Reflections:

8. Adapt nursing care to meet the needs of patients across the lifespan and healthcare continuum, respecting variations in populations, environments, and access to care.
   SLO- Select developmentally appropriate education strategies for teaching children and families.
   SLO- Evaluate expected outcomes of nursing care for children and families during wellness and illness for any given case study using professional standards of nursing practice.
   SLO- Discuss therapeutic communication with children and families.
   SLO- Use critical thinking to make clinical judgments about nursing care of children and families in wellness and illness.
   • Use knowledge of child development to ensure effective, age-appropriate interactions with patients and caregivers.
   • Apply classic psychosocial and developmental theories to care of infants and children throughout the lifespan. • Describe safety concerns that apply at various developmental stages.

**What variations in culture and populations would you consider in providing patient centered/family centered care that is appropriate to their individual situation?
Student Reflections:

The purpose of this project is to conduct a correlational, observational study in which samples drawn from two different populations (or from the same population in two different social contexts) are compared on one of three social psychological variables (aggression, altruism, or conformity). The project allows you to learn about issues that arise when attempting to reliably quantify behavior. You will conduct background research on your conceptual variables, create a theoretically-driven research hypothesis, and develop a coding scheme. You will also observe and code your target populations’ behaviors, conduct a chi-square analysis of the relationship between the variables, and write a research report on your findings.
You MUST be a non-participant observer, which means you must observe the chosen behaviors for your study as they occur naturally (that is, you cannot influence the environment or intervene/interact with participants in any way to try and elicit a particular behavior).
Participants should not be aware that they are being observed. Observations should be made discreetly or anonymously, and no informed consent will be obtained in this situation). Once again, you cannot interact with participants or alter the environment in any way!
The following are the issues that you will need to consider:

1. Select populations: Choose two populations that you can easily observe without being intrusive.
2. Select an outcome variable: Choose a conceptual variable that you can observe in your target populations that is of interest to you and that occurs frequently enough in a natural situation that you will be able to assess it. The only outcome variables that you may use are: Aggression, Altruism, or Conformity. Create an interesting operational definition of the variable (in other words, how will you define the variable in terms of your study).
   The outcome variable should be a 2 or 3 level variable representing the occurrence or non- occurrence of a given behavior in an individual. For instance, if you were measuring helping, you might code whether the person helped or did not help. Alternatively, you might have a 3- level variable (did not help; helped a little; helped a lot).
3. Select a predictor variable: You will need to select one predictor variable that you think may affect your outcome variable. Think about some variables that are known or believed to influence your outcome variable. Consider how these variables might influence the expression of the outcome variable differently in two different populations (for instance, differences between individuals who wear blue jeans and those who wear bow ties), or in a single population observed under different conditions (for instance the behavior of college students in math class versus PE class).

Additionally, NO vulnerable populations may be used (e.g. children, prisoners, etc.).

4. Background literature review: Conduct a background literature search on your predictor and outcome variables. Read and include citations and references for at least five primary sources that discuss previous research on your predictor and/or outcome variables. THREE of your sources must be journal articles that come from the following five journals:
   Journal of Personality and Social Psychology Personality and Social Psychology Bulletin Journal of Experimental Social Psychology Journal of Applied Social Psychology European Journal of Social Psychology
5. Create a research hypothesis. On the basis of the literature search, develop a research hypothesis that states an expected directional relationship between the predictor and outcome variable: For instance:
   Individuals will help more frequently at religious events than at sporting events.
   Fully consider the theoretical reasons WHY you are predicting the relationship that you are predicting (it is not sufficient to simply make the prediction).
   Have your project approved by the instructor.
6. Coding Scheme Development:
   a. Develop a list of behaviors that will serve as the operational definition of your outcome variable. Remember that you will be observing individuals (for instance, helping behavior might be operationalized as whether or not the person holds a door open or whether or not a person picks up litter).
   b. Decide what type of sampling procedures will be most appropriate (see textbook).
   c. Pilot Test. Go and observe your target population(s). Conduct a pilot test where you attempt to code the behaviors of selected individuals (you will code each individual).
   d. Make your actual observations for the research study and do your final coding of the observed behaviors when you collect your data. Code both of your populations (so, note which group each participant is in with regard to the predictor variable, and code observed behavior(s) regarding the outcome variable).
   2
7. Data Analysis:
   3
   Conduct a chi-square analysis to test your research hypothesis about differences between groups (see attached handout).
8. Research Report. Write a formal research report, following the guidelines given in the American Psychological Association Publications Manual. Maximum length is 15 pages, including Title page, Abstract, Tables, and References. You must make your own decisions about what table(s) to include in the report, but there should be at least 1 APA-formatted table.

Building Your Family Genogram

Part I (GenoPro Genogram Software)

A genogram (pronounced: jen-uh-gram) is “a pictorial representation of family relationships across several generations. It is a convenient organizing device to help you identify family patterns or develop hypotheses about family functioning” (GenoPro.com). The genogram resembles a family tree; however, it includes additional relationships among individuals. This instrument facilitates the practitioner and his client’s identification of an understanding of patterns in family history. The genogram also does a better job than a pedigree chart in mapping out relationships and traits.

Even though there are a plethora of books and websites on the subject of genograms, it is worth noting that Monica McGoldrick and Randy Gerson are responsible for its initial development and popularity in clinical settings. The structure of a genogram is by and large determined by the imagination and creativity of its author. Some of the most common features on a genogram are information related to the number of families, children in a given family, and the birth order of the family members—including the number of births and deaths.

Index Person: In constructing the genogram, identify yourself as the “index person” and complete the genogram on your family.

Focus: The focus of this genogram will be on family strengths and resilience, family patterns, rules or ways of being, and the overall health of the family. Of course, you should also address any issues and concerns that may be discovered; however, do not make the genogram problem-focused, even though this is typically how it is used in counseling.

Construction: You will submit your genogram through the assignment manager via GenoPro, found by clicking the “assignments” button. This submission will come in as a GenoPro document. You will also need to attach your narrative on a Microsoft Word document. Make sure to include the following items:

• Two preceding generations—that is, the genogram must include the index person, his/her parents, and his/her grandparents (3 generations, in all). It would also be imperative that, in the event of the index person being involved in a marital or significant relationship, mention must be made of the significant other involved, including their immediate family such as their parents, siblings, and children. In the case where the index person is either a parent or a grand-parent, his/her children must be included in the genogram.
• Use the symbols as illustrated within the GenoPro software to indicate the nature of many of the relationships among family members. Be sure to indicate yourself as the index person by drawing a double circle or double square around yourself. Do not forget to include the current date on your genogram.
• Use the relationship lines to indicate significant relationships within the family system. Do not use the “normal” line provided by GenoPro. This only crowds the graphic and makes it difficult to read.
• Include a legend at the bottom-right corner of the genogram document. The legend must only include items represented on the genogram.

The clinic in Chapter 12’s case study brainstormed how to increase revenue while keeping overhead costs low. They brainstormed and decided to include certain cosmetic and massage treatments, which ultimately failed to increase income. How might have interviewing current patients about this proposed change stopped them from making this change?

Building and managing teams

There is a plethora of material online and in print that deals with building and managing teams. However, in the global economy, teams are often made up of individuals who are not co-located. Members may be separated by space and time but still be expected to work together effectively. While such “virtual” teams face many of the same challenges that are faced by co-located teams, there are differences in how these challenges are met. Use the information gathered from your background readings to discuss the leadership approach a team and leaders should use to help organize and develop a virtual team.

Health Service Research Proposal Synopsis and Presentation

Instructions:

Health Services Research Proposal Synopsis

This assignment details your Health Services Research Proposal Synopsis. ALL proposals for
any type of scholarly work must cover the 5 bold points in the key elements below:
Section/Chapter1 contains:

1. Background and need for the work
2. Problem statement
3. Scholarly Objective, Research question (and hypotheses if needed)
   Section/Chapter 2 contains
4. Study-relevant information obtained from a review of the literature
   Section/Chapter 3 contains
5. Approach (method/design) and some information on 6-13 below
   a. Study design used
   b. Sample, population, participants
   c. Data source, data collection instruments and procedures
   d. Definitions of study variables or study dimensions of interest
   e. Data analysis procedures or procedures for organizing findings of
   qualitative studies
   f. Limitations
   g. Results, expected findings
   h. Potential significance of findings, expected conclusions, importance of
   research
   In 5-6 pages using APA format, write a Research Proposal Synopsis. Utilizing your work from
   assignments 2 and 3, write a proposal synopsis which includes all of the bold elements above and
   conclude your proposal with a brief paragraph (3-4 sentences) describing what you learned from
   this assignment. Students will give a presentation on their proposals.
   When structuring your Methods section of the Research Proposal Synopsis, use part of the
   formal outline of a methods section as listed below. The section headings for
   exploratory/descriptive, case studies, and best practices papers are in parentheses when they
   differ from headings used in hypothesis testing studies.

METHODS
Study Objective(s)
Hypotheses (or Research Questions)
Approach or Study Design
Data Sources (or Population)
Specification of Variables (or Specification of Questions [Opinions or Insights] to be
Elicited)
Data Collection or Data Set Construction (for archival data sets)
Data Analysis
In addition to the 5-6 pages, include a bibliography and separately upload a Word document
containing all 10 of the required annotated bibliographies.
As a guide to writing your proposal synopsis, go through the process of answering the questions
posed below. DO NOT INCLUDE THESE IN YOUR ASSIGNMENT, this is just a process to
assist you. Use the text to help you through this process. Make notes or write drafts as you
proceed.

1. Restate or revise/clarify the project question you identified in Assignment 2. Based on
   what you have learned, using your Problem Description and your Literature Review,
   what objective (or research questions) do you NOW want your study to meet? (It may
   have changed after your initial research).
2. What type of scholarly inquiry is your study (they each have different formats for
   writing)?
   a. Is this a project aimed at informing professional practice by integrating what is
   known into a “best practices” or “new insights” document?
   b. Is it an organizational case study or a consulting report?
   c. Is this a prospective study where you collect qualitative data?
   d. Is this a survey using a previously validated instrument?
   e. Are you developing and pilot testing a survey instrument?
   f. Are you analyzing archival data to describe a problem or issues in current
   practice?
   g. Is your study and analysis of archival (previously collected) data that tests a
   hypotheses using inferential statistics?
   h. Will you collect data prospectively and use these data to test a hypothesis?
3. Where or from whom and how can you get the data or information you need?
4. How will you collect those data or the information of interest?
5. How will you measure/record the evidence?
6. Which factors may affect your findings? Can you measure/and or control many of these
   irrelevant factors?
7. For quantitative evidence, what statistical approaches will you use to analyze your data?
   For qualitative approaches, how will you organize your responses?
8. What do you expect to find? How will you report these findings?

Review the case description (provided in Canvas) and perform related online research.  A case report will be prepared which analyzes the case and addresses specific questions. 

General

For the case assignment, you will investigate the firm’s problem(s) as they relate to Information Systems and prepare a written paper for the case. The individual case must be completed by each student and submitted for grade by the due date listed in the course schedule.  The individual case assignments are noted on Canvas under Upload Assignments.

The case analysis and discussion need to address the main issues in the case related to information systems.  Assume you are a consulting group and are giving advice to the CIO and other senior IS managers and they are the audience for your analysis report.  Read the rubric carefully and make sure you understand the requirements for “exemplary performance”.

Strength and conditioning

Strength and conditioning

1. The combination of a single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates is a

synapse.
motor unit.
motor neuron pool.
type I muscle fiber.

2. What is the fatty sheath around the axon of a nerve that provides electrical insulation, protection, nourishment, and faster signal transmission?

Soma
Axon
Myelin
Dendrite

3. Research demonstrates that a load of approximately what percentage of maximum, when lifted explosively, can recruit all the motor units?

15%
33%
65%
70%

4. The term proximal refers to a position

above a reference point.
below a reference point.
closer to a reference point.
farther from a reference point.

5. An isometric action occurs when the pulling force

is less than the resistance force, and the muscle lengthens.
equals the opposing force, and the muscle’s length increases.
equals the opposing force, and the muscle’s length remains constant.
is greater than the force applied by resistance in the opposite direction.

6. After a bout of high-intensity resistance exercise, muscle protein breakdown is increased for approximately how long?

30 minutes
60 minutes
2 hours
4 hours

7. An increase in volume of glycogen and semifluid plasma is known as

myofibrillar atrophy.
myofibrillar hypertrophy.
sarcoplasmic atrophy.
sarcoplasmic hypertrophy.

8. Which muscle fiber type has the highest shortening velocity?

Type I
Type Ix
Type IIa
Type IIx

9. The framework of the body includes how many bones?

147
206
287
306

10. Which type of ligament is located on the outside of a joint?

Medial ligament
Intrinsic ligament
Extrinsic ligament
Capsular ligament

11. After birth and throughout physical development, softer cartilage is slowly replaced by harder bone through a process called

Wolff’s Law.
resorption.
remodeling.
ossification.

12. The vertebral (spinal) column within the axial skeleton consists of five different regions made up of how many vertebrae?

12
24
28
33

13. What is the main function of blood?

To serve as a clotting agent
To maintain blood pressure
To fight bacteria, viruses, foreign cells, and organisms
To deliver oxygen and nutrients to the tissues of the body

14. Which of the following occurs during inhalation?

The external intercostal muscles expand
The internal intercostal muscles contract
The diaphragm expands and arches upward
The diaphragm contracts and arches downward

15. What is the main role of the hypothalamus gland?

To secrete melatonin
To maintain homeostasis
To maintain blood glucose balance
To regulate calcium levels in the body

16. The pressure on the walls of the arteries during the heart’s contraction is known as

pulse pressure.
systolic blood pressure.
diastolic blood pressure.
mean arterial pressure (MAP).

17. The breakdown of ATP to release its stored energy is called

hydrolysis.
gluconeogenesis.
rephosphorylation.
dephosphorylation.

18. During the first step of converting ATP to energy, which enzyme is required to break the bond between the second and third phosphates?

ATPase
Lactase
Synthase
Pyruvate

19. Glycolysis breaks down one glucose molecule into how many pyruvate molecules?

1
2
4
8

20. Highly trained athletes can access their aerobic metabolism at full capacity in

10 seconds.
20 seconds.
30 seconds.
60 seconds.

21. In the human body, and example of a third-class lever is

elbow flexion.
plantar flexion.
elbow extension.
extension and flexion of the neck.

22. What are the two types of motion for human movement?

Linear and lateral
Linear and angular
Propulsive and decelerative
Stabilization and mobilization

23. What is the physical force affecting the body’s ability to create force, accelerate, and decelerate?

Mass
Inertia
Power
Friction

24. What anatomical plane of movement divides the body into right and left segments?

Lateral plane
Frontal plane
Sagittal plane
Transverse plane

25. Which is the most mobile of the primary joints forming the shoulder girdle?

Glenohumeral (GH)
Scapulothoracic (ST)
Sternoclavicular (SC)
Acromioclavicular (AC)

26. Assessments should evaluate the following three areas: health, fitness, and

needs.
desires.
knowledge.
performance.

27. Which of the following can be an indication of a client’s overall fitness level?

Body composition
Resting heart rate
Maximal heart rate
Heart rate variability

28. Which assessment method uses the displacement of air inside a small capsule while the subject sits inside?

BOD-POD
DEXA scan
Hydrostatic weighing
Bioelectrical impedance

29. Lower crossed syndrome (LCS) involves a combination of overactive and underactive muscles, including those in the

hips.
chest.
lower legs.
upper legs.

30. Regarding variations in knee alignment, what term is synonymous with bowlegged?

Knee varus
Knee valgus
Knee eversion
Knee inversion

31. The rate at which an athlete can reach peak levels of force is his or her

maximal strength.
strength-endurance.
rate of force deployment.
rate of force development.

32. Speed strength is similar to explosive strength, with the difference being the

load that is used.
rate of force decline.
method used for assessment.
relative strength of the individual.

33. It is recommended to test the vertical jump or standing long jump every

2 weeks.
4-6 weeks.
8-10 weeks.
12 weeks.

34. The overhead toss measures explosive strength of the

shoulders only.
calves, thighs, and hips.
posterior chain and shoulders.
abdominals, chest, and triceps.

35. The measure of how strong an athlete is in relation to his or her body weight is

relative strength.
reactive strength.
maximal strength.
strength-endurance.

36. Active movements performed as a warm-up to bring joints and their associated soft tissue through a full, active, and pain-free ROM while increasing temperature and blood flow are known as

static stretches.
ballistic stretches.
dynamic stretches.
proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF).

37. During proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) stretching, muscle spindle activation causes Golgi tendon organs to inhibit muscular contraction through

autogenic inhibition.
isotonic contractions.
isometric contractions.
pre-contraction stretching.

38. Which of the following is true regarding self-myofascial release (SMR)?

SMR should only be used following activity.
SMR improves the tissue’s ability to lengthen during dynamic movement.
The optimal length of time to hold the SMR tool on the area of focus is 10-15 seconds.
Research suggests SMR has a significant effect on muscle functioning after application.

39. When performing contract relax (CR) stretching, how many times can the sequences be repeated?

No more than two times
No more than three times
Up to four times
Up to five times

40. The speed of muscular exertion is limited by

gender only.
height to weight ratio.
muscle length-tension relation only.
neuromuscular efficiency and coordination.

41. Where are Golgi tendon organs located?

Within joint capsules
In the musculotendinous junction
Within intrafusal (skeletal) muscle fibers near the musculotendinous junction
Within extrafusal (skeletal) muscle fibers near the musculotendinous junction

42. What is the function of the Golgi tendon organ?

To detect changes in the length of muscle fiber
To minimize potential stored energy in the muscle tissue
To maximize potential stored energy in the muscle tissue
To prevent excessive muscle stretch or tension through inhibitory mechanisms

43. What is the first stage of plyometric movement?

Eccentric phase
Concentric phase
Preparation phase
Amortization phase

44. The height of the box used for box jumps will vary based on the athlete, but the typical starting point is

6 inches.
12 inches.
18 inches.
24 inches.

45. What does the acronym FITT stand for?

Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type
Factual, Interesting, Tactile, Tangible
Friendly, Inclusive, Teachable, Testable
Feasibility, Interpretability, Trainability, Transferability

46. Reverse pyramid training has the lifter begin with the heaviest weight they can move for

one repetition.
two to four repetitions.
five to six repetitions.
eight to ten repetitions.

47. Tempo is the rhythm with which the load is moved during a repetition, and affects which metric?

Intensity
Recovery
Training frequency
Time under tension

48. Systematically stepping back training to lighten the load, duration, volume, or intensity of work to promote physical and psychological recovery, is known as

tapering.
regression.
downgrading.
supercompensation.

49. Which of the following is a chronic sign of overtraining?

Increased resting blood pressure
Reduced immune system function
Increased resting heart rate (by 5 to 10 bpm)
Slower heart rate recovery within a training session

50. The relatively superficial muscles connecting the trunk and extremities from the pelvis to the spine are known as the

local stabilizers.
global stabilizers.
internal stabilizers.
external stabilizers.

51. Which movement/maneuver uses the diaphragm and the pelvic floor muscles as a guide to gently activate the entire LPHC simultaneously?

Pelvic bracing
Valsalva maneuver
Abdominal bracing
Abdominal hollowing

52. In which step of core progression are foundational strength and endurance built?

Stabilization
Dynamic stability
Dynamic mobility
Muscle recruitment

53. When performing the lying leg raise exercise, the athlete should keep

the legs extended while elevating them to between 30 and 45 degrees.
the legs extended while elevating them to between 60 and 90 degrees.
a soft bend in the knees while elevating the legs to between 30 and 45 degrees.
a soft bend in the knees while elevating the legs to between 60 and 90 degrees.

54. The major dysfunctions a coach can observe with the pectoral musculature involve

joint laxity.
overactivity.
underactivity.
increased subacromial space.

55. The muscles of the shoulder include the

acromion.
subclavius.
teres minor.
serratus anterior.

56. What is the primary factor when loading upper body exercises?

Posture
The type of grip
The force vector
The position of the scapulae

57. Which of the following correctly describes the overhand grip?

Palms facing up
Palms facing down
Palms facing midline of the body
One palm facing up and one palm facing down

58. What push-up variation allows for more elbow flexion for those with limited mobility of the wrist?

Elevating the feet
Push-up from dumbbells
Widening the hand placement
Narrowing the hand placement

59. The musculature of the lower body can be divided into three groups: muscles controlling the knee, muscles controlling the ankle and foot, and muscles controlling the

hips.
lumbar spine.
thoracic spine.
sacroiliac joint.

60. The major dysfunctions a coach can observe at the foot and ankle include

metatarsalgia.
ankle eversion.
ankle protraction.
tibial tendon dysfunction.

61. To effectively activate the glutes and posterior chain during lower-body exercises, the feet must be

rotated slightly inward.
rotated slightly outward.
set and grounded at midfoot.
set and grounded with the weight toward the heels.

62. Preparation for a lower-body exercise starts

in the pelvis.
in the gluteals.
from the floor up.
by engaging the abdominals.

63. Power training, sometimes referred to as ballistic training, incorporates exercises producing maximum

gains in muscle mass.
force, irrespective of time.
gains in strength endurance.
force in the shortest duration of time.

64. The process of an individual muscle firing to create force is known as

internal coordination.
external coordination.
intramuscular coordination.
intermuscular coordination.

65. What is one of the simplest checks for overall mobility, and is commonly used by USA weightlifting for athlete preparation, and to test readiness for the snatch specifically?

Apley’s test
Toe touch test
Overhead squat
Sit and reach flexibility test

66. While performing a reverse overhead medicine ball throw, how long shall the athlete pause in the semi-squat position before powerfully standing and executing the throw?

One second
Two seconds
Three seconds
Five seconds

67. Regarding the scope of practice for nutritional coaching, which of the following statements is correct?

Laws and ordinances do not differ from state to state.
OSHA outlines nutritional coaching restrictions by state.
Nutritional coaching is outside the scope of practice for strength and conditioning professionals.
Practice location changes the level and type of nutrition recommendations a trainer can offer clients.

68. Proteins containing enough essential amino acids to maintain the body’s normal growth rate and body weight are called

required proteins.
essential proteins.
complete proteins.
functional proteins.

69. Which of the following, via intake, offers the most direct control over blood sugar levels and energy availability on a high-demand basis?

Fat
Insulin
Protein
Carbohydrate

70. What is the conduit via which the neurological system operates?

Water
Glucose
Fat-soluble vitamins
Macronutrient balance

71. How many liters of water are estimated to be lost per day, through defecation, respiration, perspiration, and urination?

Less than 1
Roughly 2.5
At least 4
Approximately 5

72. The breakdown of glucose to form energy is called

ketosis.
glycemia.
glycolysis.
gluconeogenesis.

73. The two types of endurance training are continuous training and

interval training.
long-slow-distance (LSD) training.
high-intensity long-duration (HLD) training.
energy systems development (ESD) training.

74. Which of the muscle fiber types have the lowest amount of capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin, and are responsible for the most powerful athletic movements?

Type I
Type Ia
Type IIa
Type IIx

75. Which of the following is true regarding methods of measuring aerobic development?

Cyclic athletes should not be assessed for endurance development using cyclic activities.
It is difficult for acyclic athletes to maintain their heart rate within the narrow MAHR range.
An option for assessing endurance development in acyclic athletes is testing with a cyclic activity.
It is relatively simple for acyclic athletes to maintain their heart rate within the narrow MAHR range.

76. The immediate fatigue that occurs during a single maximal repetition, set of repetitions, or a single training session is called

neural fatigue.
metabolic fatigue.
peripheral fatigue.
sympathetic fatigue.

77. A model demonstrating the body’s response to stress, which suggests performance increases are based on the aftereffects of both fitness and fatigue, is the

Fatigue Profile Model.
Fitness-Fatigue Model.
Physiology of Stress Model.
Model of Supercompensation.

78. Therapy that combines the beneficial effects of both heat and cold is called

contrast therapy.
reflexive therapy.
shell-core therapy.
alternating therapy.

79. What percentage of the protein found in milk does whey account for?

10%
20%
40%
80%

80. When choosing a protein, athletes should look for a source that is

denatured.
undenatured.
hot processed.
plant-based only.

81. Which supplement is commonly used as an alternative energy source for those who follow a carbohydrate-restricted nutritional strategy?

Pea protein
Rice protein
Long-chain triglyceride (LCT) oil
Medium-chain triglyceride (MCT) oil

82. Choline is commonly found in

egg yolks.
cider vinegar.
bamboo shoots.
imitation sour cream.

83. What compounds and metabolites contained in tart cherry juice extract can reduce an unwanted inflammatory response?

Cordyceps and dipeptides
Flavonoids and anthocyanins
Magnesium sulfate and magnesium oxide
Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)

84. The professional body overseeing the development and certification for performance psychology professionals is the

Association for Psychological Science (APS).
Association for Applied Sport Psychology (AASP).
Society for Occupational Health Psychology (SOHP).
Society for Industrial and Organizational Psychology (SIOP).

85. Motivation factors such as a coach’s pep-talk or performance outcomes are examples of

fear motivation.
internal motivation.
external motivation.
acceptance motivation.

86. What is perhaps the easiest psychological strategy to use in training?

Cues
Change bias
Cognitive dissonance
Positive reinforcement

87. Which of the following is true regarding diaphragmatic breathing?

It involves short, quick breathing
It is only used after a performance
It involves rhythmic, deep, slow breathing
It is used to “amp up” prior to performance

88. What are the three fundamental aspects of an ideal training progression?

Volume, intensity, and load
Endurance, strength, and power
Movement competency, strength, and power
Functional capacity, cardiorespiratory fitness, and injury resiliency

89. A well-designed warm-up can provide four physiological benefits, including

an increased VO2 max.
improved heart rate recovery times.
a greater volume of oxygen delivery to working muscles.
decreasing the blood volume flowing through active tissues.

90. For athletic development, it is recommended to train a major muscle group or movement pattern a minimum of

once per week.
twice per week.
twice monthly.
three times monthly.

91. The guideline for programming hypertrophy is

3 to 5 sets of 1 to 5 repetitions.
3 to 4 sets of 6 to 12 repetitions.
6 to 12 sets of 3 to 4 repetitions.
1 to 3 sets of 13 or more repetitions.

92. Which of the following actions is generally within the scope of practice for a strength and conditioning coach?

Taping an athlete’s sprained ankle
Performing manual stretching of an athlete’s hamstrings
Providing verbal cues and feedback during resistance training exercises
Designing and prescribing an individualized nutrition program for an athlete

93. Of all the steps taken to prepare for a strength and conditioning job interview, which is arguably the most challenging?

Anticipating and preparing for skepticism
Highlighting what can be done for the team
Showing an understanding of what the team needs
Selling one’s strengths by highlighting different and unique qualities

94. Regarding a new coach interviewing for a strength and conditioning job, which of the following is a recommended practice?

Avoid highlighting personal experience as an athlete in a particular sport.
Making it evident he or she is an expert in the field of strength and conditioning
Avoiding conversations about the specific needs of various player positions.
Highlight and explain any volunteered time spent to better understand player needs.

95. Regarding the interview process for a strength and conditioning job, once a coach has determined to the best of their ability what the team needs, a coach should

make it evident he or she is an expert.
minimize transparency until hired.
highlight how they can help the team.
point out areas where the previous coach failed.

96. During an interview, the interviewer may ask some challenging questions about self-perceived weaknesses, and it is for this reason a coach should

avoid revealing any known or perceived shortfalls.
take the opportunity to make it evident he or she is an expert in the field.
present solutions demonstrating a capacity to overcome any shortfalls.
not attempt to present solutions to overcome any known or perceived shortfalls.

97. Which periodization model alternates upper- and lower-body workouts throughout the week?

Linear periodization
Conjugate periodization
Non-linear periodization
Undulating periodization

98. What is the goal of the sport-specific preparation phase (SSP)?

To develop basic components of fitness
To develop skill level in sport-specific movements
To develop strength in movements that enhance sport performance
To develop explosive strength and power in sport-specific movements

99. During which phase is a relatively high volume of work programmed to build general fitness?

Escalating density training (EDT)
Sport-specific preparation (SSP)
General preparation phase (GPP)
Specific physical preparation (SPP)

100. To maintain muscle mass, in-season training should rotate between

maximal strength and power training.
hypertrophy and speed-strength training.
speed-strength and strength-speed training.
maximal strength and hypertrophy training.